KAPS exam sample Material Test 1 Paper 1

This KAPS Quiz contains older questions to help you practise. These questions are no longer used, but they’ll help you understand:

• the types of content covered in each paper of the exam
• how questions might be presented

If you want to practise the sample papers under exam conditions, you’ll need to answer all 100 questions in each paper in 2 hours.

Here is the Test 1 Paper 1

Section 1 = 30 Questions

Section 2 = 70 Questions

The sympathomimetic amine structure pictured above can be modified by substituting at the alpha and beta carbons. Which of the following effects will result if the R group on the alpha carbon is methyl rather than hydrogen?

1

Activity following oral ingestion

Increased pressor activity

Less toxicity

Less CNS stimulation

Activity

Correct! Wrong!

Another acceptable name for isopropyl alcohol is

methanol

1,2-ethanediol

2-propanol

n-propanol

propylcarbinol

Correct! Wrong!

Saponification is defined as the

A reaction of a glyceryl ester with alkali to form soaps and glycerol

reaction of acids with bases to form salt(s) and water

reaction of salts or esters with water to form acids and bases or alcohols

reaction in which the hydroxyl of an organic acid is replaced by an alkoxy group (RO)

reaction in which hydrogen atoms are added across a double bond

Correct! Wrong!

The two compounds with the following formulae are best described as

1

isosteres

diastereoisomers

optical enantiomorphs

conformational isomers

Cis-trans isomers

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is NOT true for enantiomers?

They are stereoisomers of a chiral compound

They have the same melting point

They have the same boiling point

They have the same density

They have different physical properties

Correct! Wrong!

Petrolatum is NOT soluble in

chloroform

ethyl alcohol

ether

Benzene

petroleum ether

Correct! Wrong!

Which one of the following properties BEST enables a drug to be detected by UV analysis?

Aromatic ring

Carboxyl group

Primary amine

Hydroxyl group

Aliphatic hydrocarbon chain

Correct! Wrong!

Which biochemical class does gelatin belong to?

Carbohydrate

Protein

Lipid

Glycolipid

Tannin

Correct! Wrong!

The structure of tranylcypromine consists of a rigid cyclopropane ring with two substituents in a trans-arrangement to each other. These two groups are on separate carbon atoms and

both are above the plane of the ring

one is in the plane of the ring and one below

both are in the plane of the ring

one is above the plane of the ring and one below

both are below the plane of the ring

Correct! Wrong!

The essential dietary fatty acid that gives rise to the "omega-3" family is

arachidonic acid

eicosapentaenoic acid

gamma - aminobutyric acid

linolenic acid

pentanoic acid

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is a cationic emulgent?

Sodium lauryl sulphate

Cetrimide

Sodium stearate

Calcium oleate

Triethanolamine stearate

Correct! Wrong!

Salicylic acid shaken with chloroform (SG 1.47) and dilute aqueous nitric acid will

be present mainly in the upper aqueous layer

be present mainly in the lower layer

precipitate in the upper aqueous layer

precipitate in the lower layer

be evenly dispersed in both layers

Correct! Wrong!

Biotransformation of phenobarbitone in the liver is catalysed

by the oxidative phosphorylation complex

by the microsomal mixed function oxidases

in the hexose monophosphate shunt

in the gluconeogenic pathway

by the hepatic amidases

Correct! Wrong!

The anticholinesterase activity of neostigmine is due to

1

the relative positions of molecular features A & B making it structurally similar to acetylcholine

the acetyl-like carbamoyl group A which facilitates the action of the esterase enzyme

the charged quaternary structure B which assists the release of the enzyme bound substrate

the non-polar nature of the acetyl-like carbamoyl group A

the bulky nature of the benzene ring adjacent to the quaternary structure B

Correct! Wrong!

Nicotinic acid (Vitamin B3) and gemfibrozil are used to treat

hyperlipidaemia

hyperglycaemia

anticoagulant hypertension

hypersecretion

hypovitaminosis

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following medicinal agents does NOT contain a sulphur atom?

Meloxicam

Gliclazide

Indapamide

Frusemide

Ramipril

Correct! Wrong!

The chemical reaction shown below C3H5 (C16H31O2)3 + 3KOH ---> 3KC16H31O2 + C3H5(OH)3 is an example of

esterification

neutralization

hydrolysis

saponification

polymerization

Correct! Wrong!

The following structure is? - hydroxybenzoic acid

1

meta-

para-

levo-

ortho-

pseudo-

Correct! Wrong!

The functional group which contributes to the instability of atropine is

alcohol

ketone

ester

heterocycle

ether

Correct! Wrong!

Volatile oils contain

terpenes

steroids

alkaloids

aliphatic hydrocarbons

glycosides

Correct! Wrong!

The formula given above, which is the basic formula for barbiturates, can be chemically classified as

1

acidic

basic

amphoteric

neutral

lipophilic

Correct! Wrong!

The solubility of sodium phenobarbitone is greatest in

purified water

aqueous buffer of pH 4

aqueous buffer of pH 10

dilute hydrochloric acid

chloroform water

Correct! Wrong!

The interaction of methylcellulose and p-hydroxybenzoic acid is due to

polymerization

hydrolysis

oxidation

complexation

esterification

Correct! Wrong!

Sodium metabisulphite is used in injections of adrenaline as

a suspending agent

a fungicide

an antioxidant

a buffering agent

a bactericide

Correct! Wrong!

When hexylresorcinol is exposed to light and air it

1

volatilizes very readily

loses water to form the anhydride

reduces rapidly to form a white insoluble cake

oxidises

liquefies

Correct! Wrong!

A secondary alcohol on oxidation yields a(an)

ketone

primary alcohol

aldehyde

aldehyde and subsequently an acid

ether

Correct! Wrong!

The chemical structure shown above depicts

1

pyridine

pyrrolidine

quinoline

naphthalene

bi-phenyl

Correct! Wrong!

Which of these statements does NOT apply to phenol?

Not soluble in hydrochloric acid

Undergoes photo-oxidation

Acidic

Soluble in sodium hydroxide solution

Deliquescent crystalline solid

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following chemical structures represents the side chain for amoxycillin?

Correct! Wrong!

Quinine is a (an)

nucleic acid

alkaloid

enzyme

vitamin

protein

Correct! Wrong!

Morphine

is a synthetic opioid

has an active metabolite

is a respiratory stimulant

is more potent than fentanyl

can be used to treat constipation

Correct! Wrong!

Which one of the following factors causes the majority of cases of hypertension?

Aortic aneurism

Unknown mechanisms

Phaeochromocytoma

Primary aldosteronism

Renin-angiotensin imbalances

Correct! Wrong!

Damage to the posterior pituitary

will cause senile dementia

will result in a decrease of oxytocin and vasopressin release

produces Cushing's syndrome

results in retarded growth

leads to hypothyroidism

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following are a long term complications of diabetes EXCEPT

retinopathy

microangiopathy

macroangiopathy

paralytic ileus

neuropathy

Correct! Wrong!

A Type I allergic reaction is an indication

that antibodies are not present in the blood

of immunity

of hypersensitivity to a given protein

of the presence of typhoid bacilli

of infestation by trypanosomes

Correct! Wrong!

Cystic fibrosis

is an inherited disorder of the endocrine system

most commonly affects the cardiovascular and nervous systems

often leads to lung disease, predominantly caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa

is due to a viral infection

is due to a bacterial infection

Correct! Wrong!

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

should never be used with potassium sparing diuretics

may decrease lithium levels through increased renal clearance

all have similar half-lives and duration of action

Commonly cause a dry cough and angioedema

Correct! Wrong!

Which group of symptoms is MOST often associated with a patient who has signs of left-sided heart failure?

Shortness of breath, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

Jugular venous distension, shortness of breath

Hepatojugular reflux, abdominal distension

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, hepatojugular reflux

Abdominal distension, hepatomegaly

Correct! Wrong!

Peptic ulcers

are not related to the presence of Helicobacter Pylori

are worsened by increased mucous secretion

involve excessive histamine secretion from parietal cells

involve excessive gastrin secretion from endochromaffin cells

are associated with excessive acid secretion

Correct! Wrong!

Diabetic retinopathy

is characterised by reversible changes in the retinal architecture

is characterised by microaneurysms and vitreous haemorrhage

is caused by impaired drainage of the aqueous humour

is characterised by corneal injury

is caused by proteolytic enzymes degrading the retina

Correct! Wrong!

Oestradiol is secreted by the

ovarian follicle

anterior pituitary

adrenal cortex

hypothalamus

posterior pituitary

Correct! Wrong!

The cells of the distal convoluted tubule

reabsorb approximately 50% of the water in the glomerular filtrate

are not capable of secreting hydrogen ions

reabsorb potassium ions

are sensitive to aldosterone

reabsorb approximately 75% of the glucose in the glomerular filtrate

Correct! Wrong!

Which organ in the body plays a major role in the development of the immune system?

Pancreas

Thyroid

Liver

Thymus

Adrenal

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following would be deemed to be within the optimal range of haematocrit value for a healthy adult male?

10%

20%

50%

80%

95%

Correct! Wrong!

The composition of sweat is altered in what disease state?

Hypertension

Hypothyroidism

Glomerulonephritis

Diabetes insipidus

Cystic fibrosis

Correct! Wrong!

Blackheads result from a

block of sebaceous glands

block of hair follicles

block of sweat glands

excessive intake of oily foods

excessive secretions from sebaceous glands

Correct! Wrong!

Cartilage

can be transformed into bone during ossification

binds muscle to bones

is part of epithelial tissue

covers muscles

lies within muscles

Correct! Wrong!

Muscle fatigue is thought to be a consequence of

lactic acid accumulation

paying off the oxygen debt

poisons in the blood stream

lack of sufficient ATP molecules

accumulation of carbon dioxide

Correct! Wrong!

Metformin acts via

blocking absorption of glucose by the intestine

tissue uptake of glucose

increased insulin secretion

increased metabolism of ketone precursors

Correct! Wrong!

Normal erythrocytes

are non-nucleated, biconcave discs

are nucleated biconcave discs

are non nucleated convex discs

are binucleated cells

Correct! Wrong!

The structure(s) which prevent(s) backflow of blood to the ventricles of the heart

is the interventricular septum

are the valves in the veins

are the atrio-ventricular valves

is the pericardium

are the aortic and pulmonary valves

Correct! Wrong!

If an infection of the throat has spread to the eustachian tube, to which of these structures would the infection be most likely to spread next?

Auditory nerve

Inner ear

Middle ear

Mastoid air cells

External auditory canal

Correct! Wrong!

Examples of monosaccharides are

glucose and glycine

maltose and sucrose

fructose and glucose

lactose and galactose

dextrin and erythrodextrin

Correct! Wrong!

The main effect of vasopresssin is

to increase blood pressure, increasing formation of nephric filtrate

to cause active transport of urea and uric acid from renal blood into tubules

to cause production of renin by kidney cells

inhibition of aldosterone action

to cause reabsorption of water, especially in the distal tubule and collecting ducts

Correct! Wrong!

Insulin glargine acts via

blocking absorption of glucose by the intestine

tissue uptake of glucose

increased insulin secretion

increased metabolism of ketone precursors

Correct! Wrong!

In myocardial ischaemia, β-adrenoreceptor blockade

decreases the risk of ventricular fibrillation

decreases the size of the infarct due to coronary occlusion

by agents with high intrinsic sympathominetic activity decreases the risk of reinfarction

if withdrawn leads abruptly to an increased risk of infarction

decreases the incidence of arrhythmias associated with intubation

Correct! Wrong!

Frusemide increases the flow of urine by increasing

filtration pressure

renal plasma flow

urinary pH

sodium excretion

sodium reabsorption

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following drugs does NOT lower blood pressure?

Hydralazine

Diazoxide

Minoxidil

Flecainide

Lercanidipine

Correct! Wrong!

Corticosteroids are effective in the treatment of acute asthma because they

cause acute bronchodilation

reduce mucosal oedema

suppress precipitating infections

prevent mediator release from mast cells

reduce prostaglandin formation by inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase activity

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following are antineoplastic agents. Which one is NOT an alkylating agent?

Chlorambucil

Cyclophosphamide

Melphalan

Thiotepa

Cytarabine

Correct! Wrong!

Incorporation of adrenaline into local anaesthetic solutions for injection will effectively

decrease the local action of the anaesthetic

reduce local blood flow

increase the amount of local anaesthetic which will need to be administered

block nerve fibres by depolarising the membrane

decrease the systemic side effects of the anaesthetic

Correct! Wrong!

Isoprenaline

blocks alpha adrenoceptors

stimulates beta adrenoceptors directly

releases noradrenaline from noradrenergic nerves

is taken up by uptake 1

Correct! Wrong!

Organophosphate poisoning must be treated by the urgent administration of

adrenaline

atropine

promethazine

physostigmine

methyldopa

Correct! Wrong!

Single doses of paracetamol over which of the following amounts may result in severe liver damage(which may be fatal) and referral to an emergency department is essential?

150 mg/kg

50 mg/kg

90 mg/kg

25 mg/kg

300 mg/kg

Correct! Wrong!

Which ONE of the following treatments can cause a patient to develop acute gout?

Acetazolamide

Colchicine

Triamterene

Spironolactone

Frusemide

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for an infestation of scabies?

Permethrin

Crotamiton

Mebendazole

Malathion

Tinidazole

Correct! Wrong!

Bipolar disorder is treated with all of the following EXCEPT

lithium

haloperidol

carbamazepine

sodium valproate

paroxetine

Correct! Wrong!

Which one of the following drugs is used to prevent haemorrhagic cystitis in patients receiving various types of chemotherapy?

Methotrexate

Mercaptopurine

Dacarbazine

Ifosfamide

Mesna

Correct! Wrong!

Anthracyclines can be used for the treatment of

anaemia

polycythemia

vasculitis

leukaemia

hereditary coagulation disorders

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following symptoms would be LEAST likely to be exhibited by a patient suffering from diabetes mellitus?

Urinary retention

Excessive thirst

Glycosuria

Weight loss

Weakness

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is characterised by selective destruction of myelin sheath surrounding nerve axons?

Huntington's chorea

Multiple sclerosis

Parkinson's disease

Tardive dyskinesia

Myasthenia gravis

Correct! Wrong!

Patients with diabetes have higher risks for

renal stenosis

macular depigmentation

visual cortex hyperplasia

erectile dysfunction

ocular hyperopathy

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following statements regarding whooping cough are true EXCEPT

the vaccine is at least 90% effective

the incubation period is usually 1-2 weeks

it is characterised by paroxysmal coughing

it is caused by gram negative aerobic bacilli

it is effectively treated with cephalosporin antibiotics

Correct! Wrong!

Pityriasis versicolor is BEST described as

an acute inflammatory yeast infection characterised by a diffuse rash

an asymptomatic fungal infection affecting the beard area in males

a yeast infection characterised by multiple, usually asymptomatic, patches varying in colour from white to brown

a viral infection characterised by patches of red and brown colour

Correct! Wrong!

A 'nosocomial' infection is one that

is acquired in a medical facility

is transmitted by respiratory droplets

is notifiable

is transmitted to the host via contaminated water

affects mainly school aged children

Correct! Wrong!

Betaxolol should be administered with caution in patients with

glaucoma

Parkinson's disease

asthma

epilepsy

cardiac failure

Correct! Wrong!

Atropine causes

constriction of the pupil

increased gastric motility

micturition

impairment of ejaculation

increased heart rate

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following compounds is an irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor?

Physostigmine

Edrophonium

Pilocarpine

Malathion

Atropine

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is NOT among those actions of propranolol which are due to ß1-adrenoceptor blockade?

Decrease in heart rate

Prolongation of A-V conduction time

Reduction in cardiac contractility

Reduced peripheral blood flow

Antagonism of the cardiac actions of catecholamines

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following drugs is the most useful for the chronic management of metastatic bone pain?

Indomethacin

Paracetamol

Paracetamol

Amitriptyline

Carbamazepine

Correct! Wrong!

Benzodiazepines may be indicated for all of the following EXCEPT

restless leg syndrome

muscle spasm

anxiety

depression

acute alcohol withdrawal

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following are features of simple, competitive antagonism EXCEPT

in the presence of different concentrations of antagonist, log concentration effect curves to an agonist have the same slope

the maximal response to an agonist is not reduced

increasing concentrations of antagonist shift the agonist log concentration effect curve to the right

increasing concentrations of antagonist shift the agonist log-concentrationeffect curve to the left

Correct! Wrong!

Alpha-1 receptors are the main adrenoceptor located in

arterioles

bronchioles

atria

cardiac ventricles

Correct! Wrong!

Colchicine can relieve the symptoms of an acute attack of gout because it

blocks PGE2 formation

blocks uric acid formation

inhibits neutrophil infiltration

increases uric acid excretion

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following drugs when placed in the eye would cause the pupil to contract and the eye to be focused for near vision?

Atropine

Timolol

Phenylephrine

Pilocarpine

Cyclopentolate

Correct! Wrong!

A 30-year-old female with partial seizures is treated with vigabatrin. What is the principal action of vigabatrin?

Sodium channel blockade

Increase in frequency of chloride channel opening

Inhibit GABA transaminase enzymes

Increased potassium channel permeability

NMDA receptor blockade

Correct! Wrong!

Glucocorticoids are powerful anti-inflammatory agents. Which of the following is NOT an anti-inflammatory mechanism of action of glucocorticoids?

Decreased secretion of proteolytic enzymes

Reduction in the release of cytokines, such as IL-1 and IL-2

Decreased number of circulating neutrophils

Impairment of prostaglandin and leukotriene synthesis

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following best describes the effect of doxycycline on therapeutically administered oestrogens? It decreases

oestrogen metabolism

the enterohepatic circulation of oestrogen

the plasma protein binding of oestrogen

the renal excretion of oestrogen

the sensitivity of oestrogen at its site of action

Correct! Wrong!

Rickets develops from a deficiency of which of the following?

Vitamin A

Vitamin B6

Vitamin K

Vitamin D

Vitamin C

Correct! Wrong!

Filgrastim, a colony stimulating factor, stimulates which one of the following haematological lineages?

Macrophages

Granulocytes

Thrombocytes

Erythrocytes

Lymphocytes

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is true about glutamate neurotransmission in the brain?

Glutamate is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the cerebral cortex

The anaesthetic agent ketamine is an agonist at NMDA-type receptors

Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter in the cerebral cortex

Decreases in glutamate transmission may be associated with epilepsy

Correct! Wrong!

The following statements about the use of β-blockers for treatment of congestive heart failure are true EXCEPT

β-blockers increase life expectancy

the use of β-blockers can result in cardiac depression

β-blockers prevent ventricular remodelling

β-blockers can increase ejection fraction

β-blockers increase AV nodal conduction

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following agents is a selective dopamine receptor (D2) agonist?

Fluphenazine

Bromocriptine

Promethazine

Haloperidol

Chlorpromazine

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following opioid analgesics has the longest duration of action in a standard release formulation?

Morphine

Pethidine

Oxycodone

Methadone

Tapentadol

Correct! Wrong!

Nitrous oxide

has a high anaesthetic potency

is not analgesic

has a fast induction

has a high blood/gas partition coefficient

Correct! Wrong!

The mechanism of action of salbutamol is that of a relatively selective

beta2-adrenoceptor agonist with alpha-adrenoceptor agonist activity

beta1-adrenoceptor agonist without alpha-adrenoceptor agonist activity

beta2-adrenoceptor agonist without alpha-adrenoceptor agonist activity

beta1-adrenoceptor agonist with alpha-adrenoceptor agonist activity

beta2-adrenoceptor agonist with alpha-adrenoceptor antagonist activity

Correct! Wrong!

The nursing staff report that Mr Gurley is experiencing dizziness and has fallen down several times. It is advisable to

1

continue the drug regimen as the side effects are transient

increase the dose of phenytoin

decrease the dose of phenytoin

decrease the dose of cimetidine

take the cimetidine with food to increase its absorption and decrease stomach irritation

Correct! Wrong!

Mr Gurley's poor muscle coordination may be defined in medical terminology as

1

ataxia

atresia

dementia

hemiplegia

dysarthria

Correct! Wrong!

Mr Gurley's physician calls the pharmacy for information concerning the interaction between cimetidine and some benzodiazepines. Which of the following agents is LEAST likely to have its concentration increased by cimetidine? MOST appropriate?

1

Midazolam

Diazepam

Flunitrazepam

Alprazolam

Oxazepam

Correct! Wrong!

Mr Gurley brings an antibiotic prescription into the pharmacy five days after being discharged. He asks for the meaning of "nosocomial infection". This can be BEST described as

1

communicable

hospital-related

drug-related

unknown origin

non-communicable

Correct! Wrong!

The KAPS (Knowledge Assessment of Pharmaceutical Sciences) exam tests Paper 1

RESULT

You FAILED Your score is less than 50% Better Luck Next Time

RESULT

Pass Congratulations

KAPS Exam Guide 

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