1. When does an Inspector need to divide a sample into three portoons instead of four?
2. Who serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Appellate Board?
3. What is the purpose of the Committee on Drugs Evaluation?
4. What type of containers are ophthalmic solutions and suspensions required to be contained in?
5. Which court shall try an offense punishable under the DRAP Act, 2012, and The Drugs Act, 1976?
6. Where should one portion of a sample taken by an Inspector be sent for test and analysis?
7. What are the conditions that the Central Licensing Board must ensure are complied with before granting or renewing a licence to manufacture drugs by way of basic or semi-basic manufacture?
8. The Drugs Act, 1976 extends to which of the following areas?
9. Within what time frame should the Authority submit its annual report to the Federal Government?
10. What is the primary purpose of the Committee of Experts on Drug Research?
11. Under what circumstance can an exporter withdraw a batch of drugs from export after being informed by the licensing authority?
12. What is the meaning of "Reference Biotherapeutic Product (RBP)" under ScheduleI?
13. In what circumstances shall a drug not be deemed misbranded or adulterated?
14. What is the penalty for selling a drug in the finished form over and above the maximum retail price fixed by the Federal Government?
15. What is the purpose of the Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan Fund?
16. What is the purpose of Schedule-III of the DRAP Act?
17. What is the penalty for a person who fails to provide information requested by the Authority?
18. What does the term "Advertise" mean under Schedule-II?
19. What are "Medicated Cosmetics" under Schedule-I?
20. How many members does the Policy Board consist of?
21. What is the duration of a license to import drugs, unless suspended or canceled?
22. Who may physically inspect an imported consignment, draw samples, and order the importer not to sell or dispose of the drug for a specific period?
23. Who shall not be liable for a contravention of Section 23 of the Drugs Act 1976?
24. Who can revoke an order passed under Section 32 of the DRAP Act, 2012?
25. What is the purpose of Form 10 in the export of drugs?
26. What is the punishment for violating any prohibitions specified in Schedule-II of the DRAP Act?
27. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of "Biologicals" under Schedule-I?
28. What authority is responsible for inspecting and regulaying the manufacturing of drugs under 1976 rules?
29. Under what conditions are drug advertisements to the general public generally permitted?
30. What is the purpose of the Central Research Fund mentioned in the Drugs Licensing, Registering & Advertising Rules 1976?
31. What is the penalty for giving a false warranty in respect of any therapeutic good or applying a warranty given for another therapeutic good?
32. What substances are NOT included in the definition of "Drug" under Schedule-I?
33. What is the purpose of an "airlock" in pharmaceutical manufacturing?
34. What are "Medical Devices" under Schedule-I?
35. What is the role of the Quality Control Department in the manufacturing process?
36. What is the maximum duration of a licence issued under Drugs Licensing, Registering & Advertising rules 1976?
37. Where should one portion of a sample taken by an Inspector be sent for test and analysis?
38. What is the definition of "Biological Drugs (Ready-to-fill form)" under Schedule-I?
39. Which of the following statements about advertisement material is NOT true?
40. What condition must be met for a drug or substance to be advertised through press without reference to the Federal Government?
41. Which of the following is NOT a source of financing the Drug Regulatory Authority Fund?
42. What is the meaning of "sponsor" in the context of the Drugs (Research) Rules?
43. What is the tenure of the CEO's appointment, and how many times can it be extended?
44. What is the penalty for a person who obstructs an Inspector in the exercise of any power conferred upon him under the Act?
45. In which situations may the Registration Board provisionally register a drug for a period of two years?
46. Under Schedule-II, what is allowed in terms of distributing therapeutic goods as samples?
47. What is the primary function of the Federal Drug Laboratory as stated in the rules?
48. Who has the authority to physically inspect consignments of exported drugs and draw samples for testing?
49. Under what conditions is contract manufacture permissible?
50. Who is responsible for carrying out the audit of the Authority's accounts?
51. What should an Inspector do if he finds that the therapeutic good does not contravene any provisions of the Act?
52. What is the maximum quantity of a single drug that can be imported for personal use without exceeding the limit?
53. Which of the following offenses punishable under Schedule-III is non-cognizable?
54. According to the schedule in the Drugs (Specifications) Rules, what specifications should drugs bear that reference publications specified under sub-clause (ii) of clause (z) of Section 3?
55. In case of inconsistency between the provisions of the DRAP Act and any other law, what takes precedence?
56. Which of the following is NOT considered as "Therapeutic goods" under the Act?
57. Under what condition can finished drugs be imported?
58. When can deviations be made from the information submitted during the registration of a drug?
59. Who is responsible for maintaining records of quarterly production and disposal of a drug?
60. What is the Appellate Board's authority to call for the record of a case for review?
61. When does an Inspector need to divide a sample into three portoons instead of four?
62. In what type of premises should the manufacturing of drugs by way of basic or semi-basic manufacture take place?
63. According to the Drug Licensing, Registering & Advertisement rules 1976, what type of information should advertisements to physicians and health-related professionals be consistent with?
64. According to the Drugs (Specifications) Rules, 1978, what is the requirement for ophthalmic ointments?
65. What provision allows an exporter to recall issues already made from a batch of drugs that have been found to be in contravention of the Act or rules of 1976?
66. What is the meaning of "Reference Biotherapeutic Product (RBP)" under ScheduleI?
67. What is the penalty for a subsequent offense under Clause (1) of Schedule-III?
68. What are "Medical Devices" under Schedule-I?
69. What is the punishment for violating any prohibitions specified in Schedule-II of the DRAP Act?
70. In case an exporter's license is suspended or canceled, what recourse does the licensee have?
71. What form should be used for applying for the grant or renewal of a licence to manufacture drugs?
72. What is the purpose of the criteria regarding medical representatives?
73. What stage of investigation on human beings involves determining safety, effectiveness, and common side effects of a drug?
74. In case of inconsistency between the provisions of the DRAP Act and any other law, what takes precedence?
75. If any difficulty arises in giving effect to any provision of the DRAP Act, who has the authority to remove the difficulty?
76. In what situations can a drug or substance be advertised to the medical, pharmaceutical, and allied professions without referring to the Federal Government?
77. What ethical criteria should be followed for medical drug promotion?
78. Under Schedule-II, what is allowed in terms of distributing therapeutic goods as samples?
79. Which of the following criteria should promotional claims about drugs adhere to?
80. How often must records of quarterly production and disposal of a drug be supplied to the Chairman of the Registration Board?
81. What is the purpose of an "airlock" in pharmaceutical manufacturing?
82. What is the maximum allowable retailer's discount for drugs?
83. The Central Research Fund fee collected by the Authority will be utilized for:
84. What degree qualifications are required for the competent technical staff involved in the manufacture of drugs by way of basic or semi-basic manufacture?
85. Who has the authority to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the DRAP Act 2012?
86. Who is considered an "investigator" under the Drugs (Research) Rules?
87. In which circumstances may the Registration Board register a drug on its own motion?
88. Which of the following offenses punishable under Schedule-III is non-cognizable?
89. What is the maximum time limit for submieng an appeal to the Appellate Board after receiving a decision?
90. What is the purpose of the Drugs (Research) Rules, 1978?
91. Which authority may authorize a Federal Inspector to disclose information acquired during official duties?
92. What are the types of licences to manufacture drugs under Drugs Licensing, Registering & Advertising rules 1976?
93. What is the role of the Appellate Board under The Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan Act, 2012?
94. What is the penalty for a person who fails to provide information requested by the Authority?
95. What does an Inspector require from a person during a search or seizure under Schedule-V?
96. What are "Medicated Cosmetics" under Schedule-I?
97. Who has the authority to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the DRAP Act 2012?
98. What is the role of the Quality Control Department in the manufacturing process?
99. What substances are NOT included in the definition of "Drug" under Schedule-I?
100. What is the purpose of Schedule-III of the DRAP Act?
