Chapter 2: Drug–Receptor Interactions and Pharmacodynamics Test

Welcome to your Chapter 2: Drug–Receptor Interactions and Pharmacodynamics Test

Which of the following best describes how a drug that acts as an agonist at the A subtype of GABA receptors affects signal transduction in a neuron?

Activation of this receptor subtype alters transcription of DNA in the nucleus of the neuron.

Activation of this receptor subtype opens ion channels that allow sodium to enter cells and increases the chance of generating an action potential.

Activation of this receptor subtype opens ion channels that allow chloride to enter cells and decreases the chance of generating an action potential

Activation of this receptor subtype results in G protein activation and increased intracellular second messenger levels.

If 1 mg of lorazepam produces the same anxiolytic response as 10 mg of diazepam, which is correct?

Lorazepam is more potent than is diazepam

Lorazepam is more efficacious than is diazepam.

Lorazepam is a full agonist, and diazepam is a partial agonist

Lorazepam is a better drug to take for anxiety than is diazepam.

If 10 mg of oxycodone produces a greater analgesic response than does aspirin at any dose, which is correct?

Oxycodone is more efficacious than is aspirin.

Oxycodone is less potent than is aspirin

Aspirin is a full agonist, and oxycodone is a partial agonist

Oxycodone and aspirin act on the same drug target.

In the presence of propranolol, a higher concentration of epinephrine is required to elicit full antiasthmatic activity. Propranolol has no effect on asthma symptoms. Which is correct regarding these medications?

Epinephrine is less efficacious than is propranolol.

Epinephrine is a full agonist, and propranolol is a partial agonist.

Epinephrine is an agonist, and propranolol is a competitive antagonist

Epinephrine is an agonist, and propranolol is a noncompetitive antagonist.

In the presence of picrotoxin, diazepam is less efficacious at causing sedation, regardless of the dose. Picrotoxin has no sedative effect, even at the highest dose. Which of the following is correct regarding these agents?

Picrotoxin is a competitive antagonist

Picrotoxin is a noncompetitive antagonist

Diazepam is less efficacious than is picrotoxin

Diazepam is less potent than is picrotoxin.

Haloperidol, chlorpromazine, and clozapine are antipsychotic medications that bind to the D2 subtype of dopamine receptors, with a binding affinity of haloperidol > chlorpromazine > clozapine. Which statement would have to be correct to conclude that the mechanism of antipsychotic effects for these drugs is via binding to D2 receptors?

Haloperidol should have the lowest potency of the three antipsychotic drugs.

D2 receptor binding should also be related to the potency of these drugs in causing Parkinson’s-like adverse effects.

A positive correlation should exist between the affinity of these drugs to bind to D2 receptors and their potency for antipsychotic actions.

Clozapine would have to be more potent than chlorpromazine for decreasing psychosis

If there were spare β1 -adrenergic receptors on cardiac muscle cells, which statement would be correct?

The number of spare β1 -adrenergic receptors determines the size of the maximum effect of the agonist epinephrine

Spare β1 adrenergic receptors make the cardiac tissue less sensitive to epinephrine.

A maximal effect of epinephrine is seen when only a portion of β1 adrenergic receptors are occupied.

Spare receptors are active even in the absence of epinephrine.

Which of the following up-regulates postsynaptic α1 -adrenergic receptors?

Daily use of amphetamine that causes release of norepinephrine

A disease that causes an increase in the activity of norepinephrine neurons

Daily use of phenylephrine, an α1 receptor agonist

Daily use of prazosin, an α1 receptor antagonist

Methylphenidate helps patients with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) maintain attention and perform better at school or work, with an ED50 of 10 mg. However, methylphenidate can also cause significant nausea at higher doses (TD50 = 30 mg). Which is correct regarding methylphenidate?

The therapeutic index of methylphenidate is 3.

The therapeutic index of methylphenidate is 0.3.

Methylphenidate is more potent at causing nausea than treating ADHD

Methylphenidate is more efficacious at causing nausea than treating ADHD

10.

Which is correct concerning the safety of using warfarin (with a small therapeutic index) versus penicillin (with a large therapeutic index)?

Warfarin is a safer drug because it has a low therapeutic index.

Warfarin treatment has a high chance of resulting in dangerous adverse effects if bioavailability is altered.The high therapeutic index makes penicillin a safe drug for all patients.

Penicillin treatment has a high chance of causing dangerous adverse effects if bioavailability is altered.

Chapter 2: Drug–Receptor Interactions and Pharmacodynamics Test

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