1. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of "Biologicals" under Schedule-I?
2. In what circumstances shall a drug not be deemed misbranded or adulterated?
3. What is the purpose of Form 10 in the export of drugs?
4. What is the maximum time limit for submieng an appeal to the Appellate Board after receiving a decision?
5. What is the purpose of the Committee on Drugs Evaluation?
6. What does an Inspector require from a person during a search or seizure under Schedule-V?
7. What substances are NOT included in the definition of "Drug" under Schedule-I?
8. What must be included in the labelling and promotion of a registered drug?
9. What is the purpose of Form 6?
10. What action should the Authority take in response to objections raised by the Auditor-General?
11. Which of the following actions related to therapeutic goods is PROHIBITED under Schedule-II?
12. What are "Medical Devices" under Schedule-I?
13. In which circumstances may the Registration Board register a drug on its own motion?
14. In case of inconsistency between the provisions of the DRAP Act and any other law, what takes precedence?
15. Which court shall try an offense punishable under the DRAP Act, 2012, and The Drugs Act, 1976?
16. What type of containers are ophthalmic solutions and suspensions required to be contained in?
17. What is the duration of a license to import drugs, unless suspended or canceled?
18. For drugs other than those falling under specific categories, whose approval is required for the specifications?
19. Who is responsible for maintaining records of quarterly production and disposal of a drug?
20. What is the meaning of "sponsor" in the context of the Drugs (Research) Rules?
21. In what type of premises should the manufacturing of drugs by way of basic or semi-basic manufacture take place?
22. What does the term "Advertise" mean under Schedule-II?
23. What should an Inspector do if he finds that the therapeutic good does not contravene any provisions of the Act?
24. What authority is responsible for inspecting and regulaying the manufacturing of drugs under 1976 rules?
25. If any difficulty arises in giving effect to any provision of the DRAP Act, who has the authority to remove the difficulty?
26. Which authority may authorize a Federal Inspector to disclose information acquired during official duties?
27. What is the purpose of The Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan Act, 2012?
28. Which Division is responsible for the evaluation, assessment, and registration of pharmaceutical drugs for human beings and animals?
29. According to the Drug Licensing, Registering & Advertisement rules 1976, what type of information should advertisements to physicians and health-related professionals be consistent with?
30. How often must records of quarterly production and disposal of a drug be supplied to the Chairman of the Registration Board?
31. What is the definition of "promotion" for the purposes of Schedule G of 1976 Rules?
32. Who qualifies as a Federal Inspector according to these rules?
33. What is the duration of a license to export drugs?
34. Who may physically inspect an imported consignment, draw samples, and order the importer not to sell or dispose of the drug for a specific period?
35. What kind of offense is non-cognizable under the Drugs Act 1976?
36. What is the purpose of a separate application for manufacturing drugs on more than one set of premises?
37. What are "Medicated Cosmetics" under Schedule-I?
38. Which of the following offenses punishable under Schedule-III is non-cognizable?
39. Who can revoke an order passed under Section 32 of the DRAP Act, 2012?
40. What is the condition under which printing of labeling for therapeutic goods is allowed under Schedule-II?
41. What is the purpose of Schedule-III of the DRAP Act?
42. Which of the following criteria should promotional claims about drugs adhere to?
43. When a Federal Inspector is not competent to take action under Schedule-IV, what should he do?
44. The Authority may open its accounts with:
45. Which type of ophthalmic preparations is allowed to have a preservative?
46. What condition must be met for a drug or substance to be advertised through press without reference to the Federal Government?
47. The Drugs Act, 1976 extends to which of the following areas?
48. Who has the authority to physically inspect consignments of exported drugs and draw samples for testing?
49. Under what condition can finished drugs be imported?
50. What is the consequence of violating the conditions of a license to import drugs or the provisions of the Act?
51. Where should one portion of a sample taken by an Inspector be sent for test and analysis?
52. Which authority is responsible for issuing licences to manufacture drugs by way of repacking under section 18 of ordinance in a province?
53. What is the meaning of "Reference Biotherapeutic Product (RBP)" under ScheduleI?
54. Where should one portion of a sample taken by an Inspector be sent for test and analysis?
55. What is the purpose of an "airlock" in pharmaceutical manufacturing?
56. What provision allows an exporter to recall issues already made from a batch of drugs that have been found to be in contravention of the Act or rules of 1976?
57. What is the penalty for a person who obstructs an Inspector in the exercise of any power conferred upon him under the Act?
58. In case of an appeal against the decision of the Registration Board rejecting an application for registration of a drug, what statement is required to be submitted?
59. What is the primary function of the Federal Drug Laboratory as stated in the rules?
60. Who shall not be liable for a contravention of Section 23 of the Drugs Act 1976?
61. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of "Biologicals" under Schedule-I?
62. What is the penalty for a person who fails to provide information requested by the Authority?
63. For veterinary drugs, what is the source of specifications if they are not approved by the Registration Board?
64. In case of inconsistency between the provisions of the DRAP Act and any other law, what takes precedence?
65. In which situations may the Registration Board provisionally register a drug for a period of two years?
66. Who has the power to institute a prosecution for a contravention of any provision of the DRAP Act, 2012, and The Drugs Act, 1976?
67. What is the purpose of the criteria regarding medical representatives?
68. What does the term "batch number (or lot number)" refer to?
69. What is the fee for submitting an appeal to the Appellate Board, as mentioned in the rules?
70. What are "Medicated Cosmetics" under Schedule-I?
71. Which of the following offenses punishable under Schedule-III is non-cognizable?
72. Under what conditions is contract manufacture permissible?
73. What is the term of office for members of the Registration Board?
74. Within what time frame should the Authority submit its annual report to the Federal Government?
75. What is the primary purpose of the Committee of Experts on Drug Research?
76. Under what conditions are drug advertisements to the general public generally permitted?
77. What is the definition of "Biological Drugs (Ready-to-fill form)" under Schedule-I?
78. Under what conditions can the aid from the research fund be withdrawn and a clinical trial terminated?
79. What is the main duty of a Federal Inspector?
80. What is the commencement date for the Drugs (Specifications) Rules, 1978?
81. What is the purpose of the Central Research Fund mentioned in the Drugs Licensing, Registering & Advertising Rules 1976?
82. What is the punishment for violating any prohibitions specified in Schedule-II of the DRAP Act?
83. What is the meaning of "Reference Biotherapeutic Product (RBP)" under ScheduleI?
84. What is the penalty for selling a drug in the finished form over and above the maximum retail price fixed by the Federal Government?
85. The Authority shall levy and collect fees for its functions at rates determined by:
86. What is the punishment for a person who exports, imports, manufactures for sale, or sells any spurious therapeutic good or any unregistered therapeutic good?
87. What is the punishment for violating any prohibitions specified in Schedule-II of the DRAP Act?
88. Which of the following is NOT considered as "Therapeutic goods" under the Act?
89. Who has the authority to establish the Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan?
90. What ethical criteria should be followed for medical drug promotion?
91. How many members does the Policy Board consist of?
92. Which term refers to the set of operations that establish the relationship between values indicated by an instrument and known reference standards?
93. What is the maximum duration of a licence issued under Drugs Licensing, Registering & Advertising rules 1976?
94. What is the punishment for a person who exports, imports, manufactures for sale, or sells any spurious therapeutic good or any unregistered therapeutic good?
95. What are the conditions that the Central Licensing Board must ensure are complied with before granting or renewing a licence to manufacture drugs by way of basic or semi-basic manufacture?
96. What is the penalty for a subsequent offense under Clause (1) of Schedule-III?
97. Which of the following is NOT a source of financing the Drug Regulatory Authority Fund?
98. What is the purpose of 'the Drugs (Federal Inspectors, Federal Drug Laboratory and Federal Government Analysts) Rules, 1976'?
99. What action should the Authority take in response to objections raised by the Auditor-General?
100. What is the penalty for a person who obstructs an Inspector in the exercise of any power conferred upon him under the Act?
