1. Which of the following offenses punishable under Schedule-III is non-cognizable?
2. Within what time frame should the Authority submit its annual report to the Federal Government?
3. What does the term "Advertise" mean under Schedule-II?
4. What is the purpose of Form 6?
5. What is the punishment for violating any prohibitions specified in Schedule-II of the DRAP Act?
6. What substances are NOT included in the definition of "Drug" under Schedule-I?
7. What does the term "batch number (or lot number)" refer to?
8. When can deviations be made from the information submitted during the registration of a drug?
9. The Authority shall levy and collect fees for its functions at rates determined by:
10. Under Schedule-II, what is allowed in terms of distributing therapeutic goods as samples?
11. What is the age requirement for the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Authority?
12. Under what circumstance can an exporter withdraw a batch of drugs from export after being informed by the licensing authority?
13. If any difficulty arises in giving effect to any provision of the DRAP Act, who has the authority to remove the difficulty?
14. What authority is responsible for inspecting and regulaying the manufacturing of drugs under 1976 rules?
15. How long do members, other than ex-officio members, of the Appellate Board hold office for initially?
16. According to the Drug Licensing, Registering & Advertisement rules 1976, what type of information should advertisements to physicians and health-related professionals be consistent with?
17. What is the purpose of a separate application for manufacturing drugs on more than one set of premises?
18. Which of the following substances would NOT be considered a "Medicated Cosmetic"?
19. Under what conditions are drug advertisements to the general public generally permitted?
20. For veterinary drugs, what is the source of specifications if they are not approved by the Registration Board?
21. Which of the following offenses punishable under Schedule-III is non-cognizable?
22. Which power of the Inspector requires specific authorization by the Government?
23. What is the definition of "promotion" for the purposes of Schedule G of 1976 Rules?
24. What substances are NOT included in the definition of "Drug" under Schedule-I?
25. What are the conditions that the Central Licensing Board must ensure are complied with before granting or renewing a licence to manufacture drugs by way of basic or semi-basic manufacture?
26. Which authority is responsible for issuing licences to manufacture drugs by way of repacking under section 18 of ordinance in a province?
27. Which court shall try an offense punishable under the DRAP Act, 2012, and The Drugs Act, 1976?
28. What is the purpose of the Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan Fund?
29. What is the maximum period for which an Inspector can forbid a person in charge of premises from removing or dispensing therapeutic goods?
30. What is the maximum quantity of a single drug that can be imported for personal use without exceeding the limit?
31. What is the purpose of 'the Drugs (Federal Inspectors, Federal Drug Laboratory and Federal Government Analysts) Rules, 1976'?
32. Under what condition can finished drugs be imported?
33. Which of the following criteria should promotional claims about drugs adhere to?
34. What condition must be met for a drug or substance to be advertised through press without reference to the Federal Government?
35. What is the purpose of an "airlock" in pharmaceutical manufacturing?
36. What is the definition of "Biological Drugs (Ready-to-fill form)" under Schedule-I?
37. What is the main duty of a Federal Inspector?
38. What is the penalty for a subsequent offense under Clause (1) of Schedule-III?
39. How many members does the Policy Board consist of?
40. Which type of ophthalmic preparations is allowed to have a preservative?
41. What is the penalty for selling a drug in the finished form over and above the maximum retail price fixed by the Federal Government?
42. What is the maximum time limit for submieng an appeal to the Appellate Board after receiving a decision?
43. What is the punishment for a person who exports, imports, manufactures for sale, or sells any spurious therapeutic good or any unregistered therapeutic good?
44. The Drugs Act, 1976 extends to which of the following areas?
45. In what type of premises should the manufacturing of drugs by way of basic or semi-basic manufacture take place?
46. What is the primary function of the Federal Drug Laboratory as stated in the rules?
47. What is the purpose of an "airlock" in pharmaceutical manufacturing?
48. Which of the following is NOT considered as "Therapeutic goods" under the Act?
49. Who has the authority to establish the Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan?
50. In what circumstances shall a drug not be deemed misbranded or adulterated?
51. Under what conditions is contract manufacture permissible?
52. Which of the following actions related to therapeutic goods is PROHIBITED under Schedule-II?
53. What is the maximum duration of a licence issued under Drugs Licensing, Registering & Advertising rules 1976?
54. Who has the authority to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the DRAP Act 2012?
55. Under Schedule-II, what is allowed in terms of distributing therapeutic goods as samples?
56. What must be included in the labelling and promotion of a registered drug?
57. What is the role of the Appellate Board under The Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan Act, 2012?
58. Who can revoke an order passed under Section 32 of the DRAP Act, 2012?
59. What information should be included in the written contract between the contract giver and contract acceptor for contract manufacture?
60. What is the primary focus of basic research in the context of the Drugs (Research) Rules?
61. What is the penalty for selling a drug in the finished form over and above the maximum retail price fixed by the Federal Government?
62. What is the role of the Quality Control Department in the manufacturing process?
63. What is the purpose of the criteria regarding medical representatives?
64. Who is responsible for carrying out the audit of the Authority's accounts?
65. The Authority may open its accounts with:
66. Who has the power to institute a prosecution for a contravention of any provision of the DRAP Act, 2012, and The Drugs Act, 1976?
67. What is the consequence of violating the conditions of a license to import drugs or the provisions of the Act?
68. Which term refers to the set of operations that establish the relationship between values indicated by an instrument and known reference standards?
69. What action should the Authority take in response to objections raised by the Auditor-General?
70. What is the purpose of the Committee on Drugs Evaluation?
71. What is the penalty for a person who obstructs an Inspector in the exercise of any power conferred upon him under the Act?
72. What is the purpose of the Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan Fund?
73. What is the meaning of "Reference Biotherapeutic Product (RBP)" under ScheduleI?
74. What is the short title of the rules that govern the Drugs Appellate Board?
75. What are the types of licences to manufacture drugs under Drugs Licensing, Registering & Advertising rules 1976?
76. According to the schedule in the Drugs (Specifications) Rules, what specifications should drugs bear that reference publications specified under sub-clause (ii) of clause (z) of Section 3?
77. When a Federal Inspector is not competent to take action under Schedule-IV, what should he do?
78. What provision allows an exporter to recall issues already made from a batch of drugs that have been found to be in contravention of the Act or rules of 1976?
79. What is the duration of a license to export drugs?
80. What is the purpose of the Drugs (Research) Rules, 1978?
81. What is the punishment for a person who exports, imports, manufactures for sale, or sells any spurious therapeutic good or any unregistered therapeutic good?
82. What action should the Authority take in response to objections raised by the Auditor-General?
83. What are "Medicated Cosmetics" under Schedule-I?
84. Which type of research involves intervention, treatment, or medication programs using human subjects?
85. What does an Inspector require from a person during a search or seizure under Schedule-V?
86. What degree qualifications are required for the competent technical staff involved in the manufacture of drugs by way of basic or semi-basic manufacture?
87. What is the fee for submitting an appeal to the Appellate Board, as mentioned in the rules?
88. Who has the authority to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the DRAP Act 2012?
89. What is the penalty for a person who fails to provide information requested by the Authority?
90. What is the purpose of The Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan Act, 2012?
91. What is the maximum allowable retailer's discount for drugs?
92. Which of the following statements about advertisement material is NOT true?
93. What is the purpose of The Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan Act, 2012?
94. What is the purpose of Form 10 in the export of drugs?
95. What is the maximum duration for which the approval of an advertisement under sub-rule (1) is valid?
96. What is the purpose of the Central Research Fund mentioned in the Drugs Licensing, Registering & Advertising Rules 1976?
97. When does an Inspector need to divide a sample into three portoons instead of four?
98. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of "Biologicals" under Schedule-I?
99. Who has the authority to physically inspect consignments of exported drugs and draw samples for testing?
100. What does an Inspector require from a person during a search or seizure under Schedule-V?
