1. Within what time frame should the Authority submit its annual report to the Federal Government?
2. What should an Inspector do if he finds that the therapeutic good does not contravene any provisions of the Act?
3. In what type of premises should the manufacturing of drugs by way of basic or semi-basic manufacture take place?
4. How many members does the Policy Board consist of?
5. Under what conditions can the aid from the research fund be withdrawn and a clinical trial terminated?
6. Who has the authority to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the DRAP Act 2012?
7. Which of the following actions related to therapeutic goods is PROHIBITED under Schedule-II?
8. What authority is responsible for inspecting and regulaying the manufacturing of drugs under 1976 rules?
9. What kind of offense is non-cognizable under the Drugs Act 1976?
10. What is the commencement date for the Drugs (Specifications) Rules, 1978?
11. In case an exporter's license is suspended or canceled, what recourse does the licensee have?
12. Which type of research involves intervention, treatment, or medication programs using human subjects?
13. Which of the following is NOT a source of financing the Drug Regulatory Authority Fund?
14. What is the purpose of an "airlock" in pharmaceutical manufacturing?
15. What are "Medical Devices" under Schedule-I?
16. What is the primary focus of basic research in the context of the Drugs (Research) Rules?
17. What is the penalty for selling a drug in the finished form over and above the maximum retail price fixed by the Federal Government?
18. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of "Biologicals" under Schedule-I?
19. What is the main duty of a Federal Inspector?
20. Which of the following criteria should promotional claims about drugs adhere to?
21. What is the purpose of the Drugs (Research) Rules, 1978?
22. The Central Research Fund fee collected by the Authority will be utilized for:
23. Which of the following actions related to therapeutic goods is PROHIBITED under Schedule-II?
24. In case of inconsistency between the provisions of the DRAP Act and any other law, what takes precedence?
25. Who has the power to institute a prosecution for a contravention of any provision of the DRAP Act, 2012, and The Drugs Act, 1976?
26. What must be included in the labelling and promotion of a registered drug?
27. Which power of the Inspector requires specific authorization by the Government?
28. Who can revoke an order passed under Section 32 of the DRAP Act, 2012?
29. The Authority shall levy and collect fees for its functions at rates determined by:
30. Who shall not be liable for a contravention of Section 23 of the Drugs Act 1976?
31. Who is considered an "investigator" under the Drugs (Research) Rules?
32. What substances are NOT included in the definition of "Drug" under Schedule-I?
33. What is the fee for the renewal of registration of a new drug?
34. Who is responsible for maintaining records of quarterly production and disposal of a drug?
35. Where should one portion of a sample taken by an Inspector be sent for test and analysis?
36. What is the purpose of the criteria regarding medical representatives?
37. How often must records of quarterly production and disposal of a drug be supplied to the Chairman of the Registration Board?
38. What labeling requirements apply to drugs manufactured for experimental purposes?
39. What is the procedure for appealing the suspension or cancellation of a license under Drugs Import & Export Rules 1976?
40. What is the purpose of the Central Research Fund mentioned in the Drugs Licensing, Registering & Advertising Rules 1976?
41. What is the purpose of Schedule-III of the DRAP Act?
42. What does an Inspector require from a person during a search or seizure under Schedule-V?
43. In what situations can a drug or substance be advertised to the medical, pharmaceutical, and allied professions without referring to the Federal Government?
44. What is the purpose of Schedule-III of the DRAP Act?
45. What is the purpose of The Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan Act, 2012?
46. What is the role of the Quality Control Department in the manufacturing process?
47. What is the maximum duration of a licence issued under Drugs Licensing, Registering & Advertising rules 1976?
48. What does the term "Advertise" mean under Schedule-II?
49. What does an Inspector require from a person during a search or seizure under Schedule-V?
50. What stage of investigation on human beings involves determining safety, effectiveness, and common side effects of a drug?
51. Which of the following substances would NOT be considered a "Medicated Cosmetic"?
52. When can deviations be made from the information submitted during the registration of a drug?
53. What is the duration of a license to import drugs, unless suspended or canceled?
54. What is the primary function of the Federal Drug Laboratory as stated in the rules?
55. What substances are NOT included in the definition of "Drug" under Schedule-I?
56. What is the penalty for selling a drug in the finished form over and above the maximum retail price fixed by the Federal Government?
57. Which of the following statements about advertisement material is NOT true?
58. According to the Drug Licensing, Registering & Advertisement rules 1976, what type of information should advertisements to physicians and health-related professionals be consistent with?
59. What is the punishment for a person who exports, imports, manufactures for sale, or sells any spurious therapeutic good or any unregistered therapeutic good?
60. What is the role of the Appellate Board under The Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan Act, 2012?
61. What is the duration of a license to export drugs?
62. What information should be included in the written contract between the contract giver and contract acceptor for contract manufacture?
63. Who has the authority to physically inspect consignments of exported drugs and draw samples for testing?
64. Under what conditions is contract manufacture permissible?
65. Which authority is responsible for issuing licences to manufacture drugs by way of repacking under section 18 of ordinance in a province?
66. Which authority may authorize a Federal Inspector to disclose information acquired during official duties?
67. What does the term "batch number (or lot number)" refer to?
68. What is the punishment for violating any prohibitions specified in Schedule-II of the DRAP Act?
69. What is the maximum quantity of a single drug that can be imported for personal use without exceeding the limit?
70. When does an Inspector need to divide a sample into three portoons instead of four?
71. What is the fee for submitting an appeal to the Appellate Board, as mentioned in the rules?
72. Which term refers to the set of operations that establish the relationship between values indicated by an instrument and known reference standards?
73. Which power of the Inspector requires specific authorization by the Government?
74. In which circumstances may the Registration Board register a drug on its own motion?
75. Under what condition can finished drugs be imported?
76. What is the meaning of "Reference Biotherapeutic Product (RBP)" under ScheduleI?
77. What is the short title of the rules that govern the Drugs Appellate Board?
78. Who has the authority to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the DRAP Act 2012?
79. What is the Appellate Board's authority to call for the record of a case for review?
80. Which Division is responsible for the evaluation, assessment, and registration of pharmaceutical drugs for human beings and animals?
81. In case of inconsistency between the provisions of the DRAP Act and any other law, what takes precedence?
82. What provision allows an exporter to recall issues already made from a batch of drugs that have been found to be in contravention of the Act or rules of 1976?
83. What type of containers are ophthalmic solutions and suspensions required to be contained in?
84. What action should the Authority take in response to objections raised by the Auditor-General?
85. What degree qualifications are required for the competent technical staff involved in the manufacture of drugs by way of basic or semi-basic manufacture?
86. If any difficulty arises in giving effect to any provision of the DRAP Act, who has the authority to remove the difficulty?
87. What are "Medicated Cosmetics" under Schedule-I?
88. What is the condition under which printing of labeling for therapeutic goods is allowed under Schedule-II?
89. If any difficulty arises in giving effect to any provision of the DRAP Act, who has the authority to remove the difficulty?
90. In what circumstances shall a drug not be deemed misbranded or adulterated?
91. For veterinary drugs, what is the source of specifications if they are not approved by the Registration Board?
92. Which of the following offenses punishable under Schedule-III is non-cognizable?
93. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of "Biologicals" under Schedule-I?
94. What is the age requirement for the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Authority?
95. What is the purpose of a separate application for manufacturing drugs on more than one set of premises?
96. What is the penalty for a subsequent offense under Clause (1) of Schedule-III?
97. What is the purpose of Form 6?
98. What is the penalty for a person who fails to provide information requested by the Authority?
99. What is the meaning of "sponsor" in the context of the Drugs (Research) Rules?
100. What is the punishment for violating any prohibitions specified in Schedule-II of the DRAP Act?
