1. What is the Appellate Board's authority to call for the record of a case for review?
2. What is the purpose of Schedule-III of the DRAP Act?
3. What is the penalty for a person who fails to provide information requested by the Authority?
4. What is the procedure for appealing the suspension or cancellation of a license under Drugs Import & Export Rules 1976?
5. What provision allows an exporter to recall issues already made from a batch of drugs that have been found to be in contravention of the Act or rules of 1976?
6. What is the purpose of the criteria regarding medical representatives?
7. What is the short title of the rules that govern the Drugs Appellate Board?
8. The Drugs Act, 1976 extends to which of the following areas?
9. Who has the power to institute a prosecution for a contravention of any provision of the DRAP Act, 2012, and The Drugs Act, 1976?
10. Which of the following actions related to therapeutic goods is PROHIBITED under Schedule-II?
11. What ethical criteria should be followed for medical drug promotion?
12. Who has the authority to make rules for carrying out the purposes of the DRAP Act 2012?
13. What does the term "Advertise" mean under Schedule-II?
14. Which term refers to the set of operations that establish the relationship between values indicated by an instrument and known reference standards?
15. The Central Research Fund fee collected by the Authority will be utilized for:
16. Who is responsible for maintaining records of quarterly production and disposal of a drug?
17. Under what conditions are drug advertisements to the general public generally permitted?
18. In case an exporter's license is suspended or canceled, what recourse does the licensee have?
19. What is the purpose of the Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan Fund?
20. What are "Medicated Cosmetics" under Schedule-I?
21. If any difficulty arises in giving effect to any provision of the DRAP Act, who has the authority to remove the difficulty?
22. What is the primary focus of basic research in the context of the Drugs (Research) Rules?
23. Under Schedule-II, what is allowed in terms of distributing therapeutic goods as samples?
24. When can deviations be made from the information submitted during the registration of a drug?
25. What degree qualifications are required for the competent technical staff involved in the manufacture of drugs by way of basic or semi-basic manufacture?
26. What is the purpose of the Committee on Drugs Evaluation?
27. What is the age requirement for the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Authority?
28. What is the primary function of the Federal Drug Laboratory as stated in the rules?
29. Who is considered an "investigator" under the Drugs (Research) Rules?
30. The Authority shall levy and collect fees for its functions at rates determined by:
31. What is the penalty for selling a drug in the finished form over and above the maximum retail price fixed by the Federal Government?
32. What authority is responsible for inspecting and regulaying the manufacturing of drugs under 1976 rules?
33. Who can revoke an order passed under Section 32 of the DRAP Act, 2012?
34. What is the penalty for selling a drug in the finished form over and above the maximum retail price fixed by the Federal Government?
35. Who qualifies as a Federal Inspector according to these rules?
36. What is the penalty for a person who obstructs an Inspector in the exercise of any power conferred upon him under the Act?
37. Under Schedule-II, what is allowed in terms of distributing therapeutic goods as samples?
38. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of "Biologicals" under Schedule-I?
39. Which authority is responsible for issuing licences to manufacture drugs by way of repacking under section 18 of ordinance in a province?
40. What is the punishment for a person who exports, imports, manufactures for sale, or sells any spurious therapeutic good or any unregistered therapeutic good?
41. What action should the Authority take in response to objections raised by the Auditor-General?
42. What is the maximum duration for which the approval of an advertisement under sub-rule (1) is valid?
43. Under what conditions can the aid from the research fund be withdrawn and a clinical trial terminated?
44. Who serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Appellate Board?
45. How many members does the Policy Board consist of?
46. Who has the authority to physically inspect consignments of exported drugs and draw samples for testing?
47. Under what conditions is contract manufacture permissible?
48. What is the penalty for a subsequent offense under Clause (1) of Schedule-III?
49. What is the duration of a license to export drugs?
50. In what type of premises should the manufacturing of drugs by way of basic or semi-basic manufacture take place?
51. What is the purpose of The Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan Act, 2012?
52. Who is responsible for carrying out the audit of the Authority's accounts?
53. What condition must be met for a drug or substance to be advertised through press without reference to the Federal Government?
54. Which type of research involves intervention, treatment, or medication programs using human subjects?
55. Which of the following actions related to therapeutic goods is PROHIBITED under Schedule-II?
56. Under what condition can finished drugs be imported?
57. What is the consequence of violating the conditions of a license to import drugs or the provisions of the Act?
58. What are "Medical Devices" under Schedule-I?
59. What is the punishment for a person who exports, imports, manufactures for sale, or sells any spurious therapeutic good or any unregistered therapeutic good?
60. What does an Inspector require from a person during a search or seizure under Schedule-V?
61. What is the role of the Appellate Board under The Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan Act, 2012?
62. What condition must be met for an application for renewal of a licence to be entertained?
63. What is the meaning of "Reference Biotherapeutic Product (RBP)" under ScheduleI?
64. What is the penalty for a person who obstructs an Inspector in the exercise of any power conferred upon him under the Act?
65. How long do members, other than ex-officio members, of the Appellate Board hold office for initially?
66. What does an Inspector require from a person during a search or seizure under Schedule-V?
67. Which of the following offenses punishable under Schedule-III is non-cognizable?
68. According to the Drug Licensing, Registering & Advertisement rules 1976, what type of information should advertisements to physicians and health-related professionals be consistent with?
69. What is the meaning of "sponsor" in the context of the Drugs (Research) Rules?
70. What is the maximum duration of a licence issued under Drugs Licensing, Registering & Advertising rules 1976?
71. Which of the following substances would NOT be considered a "Medicated Cosmetic"?
72. What is the fee for the renewal of registration of a new drug?
73. What is the purpose of Form 6?
74. Where should one portion of a sample taken by an Inspector be sent for test and analysis?
75. What is the penalty for a person who fails to provide information requested by the Authority?
76. In which circumstances may the Registration Board register a drug on its own motion?
77. What is the role of the Quality Control Department in the manufacturing process?
78. What is the fee for submitting an appeal to the Appellate Board, as mentioned in the rules?
79. When does an Inspector need to divide a sample into three portoons instead of four?
80. What must be included in the labelling and promotion of a registered drug?
81. What is the purpose of Form 10 in the export of drugs?
82. For veterinary drugs, what is the source of specifications if they are not approved by the Registration Board?
83. The Authority may open its accounts with:
84. What substances are NOT included in the definition of "Drug" under Schedule-I?
85. Who has the authority to establish the Drug Regulatory Authority of Pakistan?
86. What is the role of the Quality Control Department in the manufacturing process?
87. In case of inconsistency between the provisions of the DRAP Act and any other law, what takes precedence?
88. When a Federal Inspector is not competent to take action under Schedule-IV, what should he do?
89. What is the definition of "promotion" for the purposes of Schedule G of 1976 Rules?
90. What does the term "batch number (or lot number)" refer to?
91. Which of the following is NOT a source of financing the Drug Regulatory Authority Fund?
92. Which Division is responsible for the evaluation, assessment, and registration of pharmaceutical drugs for human beings and animals?
93. What is the maximum quantity of a single drug that can be imported for personal use without exceeding the limit?
94. Where should one portion of a sample taken by an Inspector be sent for test and analysis?
95. Which authority may authorize a Federal Inspector to disclose information acquired during official duties?
96. What are the types of licences to manufacture drugs under Drugs Licensing, Registering & Advertising rules 1976?
97. Which court shall try an offense punishable under the DRAP Act, 2012, and The Drugs Act, 1976?
98. What type of containers are ophthalmic solutions and suspensions required to be contained in?
99. What is the definition of "Biological Drugs (Ready-to-fill form)" under Schedule-I?
100. What is the penalty for giving a false warranty in respect of any therapeutic good or applying a warranty given for another therapeutic good?